Where does it say anything in there about the purchaser being the receiver?
Where does it say anything in there about the purchaser being the receiver?
It doesn't - that's what im saying. That would be your argument (that is only says "purchaser"), and their argument (and rightly so imo) would be that for the legislation to work as intended, the purchaser is the receiver.
This would then, imo, either be amended into the act / a point added that says "for the purpose of the arms act 1983, section 43A the purchaser is to be the receiver" - or a precedent set (by the police winning) that for the purpose of the act & for the legislation to work as intended the purchaser needs to be the receiver.
Surely you cant be trying to argue that having one person fill out a form and be deemed "fit and proper" and having someone else picking it up who can then do what they want with it is the act working as intended. I cant see a court would side with you -they would probably say that its assumed the purchaser is the receiver (which would be the act working properly) which would then set the precedent.
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