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I'll chuck in my two cents. A right is, "something to which one has a just claim", or, "something that you are morally or legally allowed to do". So by the definitions, which are one and the same, owning a firearm isn't a right. We have the right to attempt to get a firearms license, when we have a license we have a right to a firearm. So because there is a legal requirement that is not met by everyone (having a license) it is not a universal right.
So if there is no right to posses a firearm, why does the Arms Act say that a person cannot possess a firearm without a licence? Surely if the right does not exist in the first place, then there is no requirement to place a restriction on the right ?
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